Q.

What did the apostle Paul mean by the statement, “But to the rest I, not the Lord, say…” (1 Corinthians 7:12)? Does this phrase indicate that what Paul subsequently wrote was uninspired?

Considering how many times Paul claimed to write and preach by inspiration of God, it is irresponsible to conclude that he was denying inspiration when addressing marriages between Christians and non-Christians (1 Corinthians 7:12-16). Earlier in this letter, Paul noted that while in Corinth, his preaching was “not with persuasive words of human wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power, that your faith should not be in the wisdom of men but in the power of God” (2:4-5). Paul contrasted human wisdom with the wisdom and power of God, and declared that he had the latter. Later, in this same epistle, Paul wrote: “If anyone thinks himself to be a prophet or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things which I write to you are the commandments of the Lord” (14:37, emp. added; cf. 7:40). Paul also claimed inspiration in his other epistles (Galatians 1:12; 1 Thessalonians 4:8,15). Even Peter alluded to Paul’s writings as being a part of Scripture, and thus inspired (2 Peter 3:15-16).

When Paul wrote that he (rather than the Lord) was addressing a particular marriage relationship, he did not mean that he was speaking without authority from God. He simply meant that he was making application of marital truths that the Lord did not specifically expound upon while on Earth. Jesus most certainly was the Master Teacher (cf. Matthew 7:28-29; John 7:46), but He obviously did not specifically address every subject under the Sun. Thankfully, through His inspired apostles and prophets, more specific truths and applications eventually were revealed. Christians have every reason to believe that such truths originated with “the Spirit of truth,” Who guided Paul and the rest of the Bible writers “into all truth” (John 16:13).

Problem: In two places in 1 Corinthians (7:12,40), the Apostle Paul seems to imply that he is writing on his own authority, not the Lord’s. First, in7:12Paul says, “But to the rest I, not the Lord.” And in7:40he says “and I think I also have the Spirit of God” which seems to imply that Paul is not sure if he has the Holy Spirit. How can these verses be harmonized with the divine authority claimed by Paul in his epistles (cf.Gal 1:11–17;2 Tim. 3:16–17)?

Solution: First, concerning 1 Corinthians 7:12, Paul is referring to the fact that the Lord did not directly address this issue when He spoke about divorce and marriage (Matthew 5:31–32; 19:4–12). So Paul does speak to it here, giving his authoritative view on whether a believing wife should stay with an unbelieving husband.

Second, Paul was not uncertain of his possession of the Holy Spirit on this matter, since he said clearly “I also have the Spirit of God” (1 Cor. 7:40). So this passage cannot be used to show that Paul disclaimed divine authority.

Finally, Paul clearly affirmed his divine authority in this very book, declaring what he wrote as “words ... the Holy Spirit teaches” (1 Cor. 2:13). Indeed, he concludes the book by saying, “the things which I write to you are the commandments of the Lord” (14:37). So his words in chapter 7 should be taken in harmony with these emphatic claims.