79. Apart from Jesus there was no-one else (John 3:13) or there were others (2 Kings 2:11) who ascended to heaven?

(Category: misunderstood the wording)

While Enoch and Elijah were translated to a heavenly state without dying (Genesis 5:24), they did not ascend to the very throne of God where Christ dwells. In John 3:13 Jesus is setting forth his unique origin and superior knowledge of heavenly things. Essentially what he is saying is that no mere human being can speak from first-hand knowledge about these things, as He can, since He came down from heaven. He is claiming that no one has ascended to the highest heaven to bring down the message that He brought. In no way is He denying that others were taken up, such as Elijah and Enoch. Rather, Jesus is simply claiming that no one on earth has gone to the presence of the Father and returned with a message such as He offered to them.

When Jesus spoke to Nicodemus regarding the need to be “born again” (John 3:1-8), He also sought to impress upon the mind of this ruler of the Jews that His words were from above. Jesus spoke of spiritual things that no man knew (Matthew 13:35; cf. 7:28-29; Luke 2:47). One of the reasons Jesus gave for being able to expound on such spiritual truths is found in John 3:13. Here, the apostle John recorded Jesus as having said to Nicodemus, “No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man” (John 3:13). According to the skeptic, this statement by Jesus is severely flawed. Since the Old Testament reveals that Elijah escaped physical death and “went up by a whirlwind into heaven” (2 Kings 2:11; cf. Genesis 5:24; Hebrews 11:5), allegedly Jesus could not truthfully tell Nicodemus, “No one has ascended to heaven.” Is the skeptic right?

For Jesus’ statement to contradict what the Bible says about Elijah, one first must presuppose that Jesus was referring to the exact same place to which Elijah ascended. For a contradiction to exist between two Bible passages, one must prove that the one doing the speaking (or writing) is referring to the same person, place, or thing (see Jevons, 1928, p. 118). Can the skeptic be certain that the “heaven” to which Jesus referred, is the same one into which the body of Elijah ascended? The words “heaven” or “heavens” appear in our English Bibles about 700 times. And yet, in many of the passages where “heaven(s)” is found, the inspired writers were not discussing the spiritual heaven with which we most often associate the word. For example, in Genesis 1 and 2, the Hebrew word for heaven appears 15 times in 14 verses. Yet in every instance, the word is referring to something besides the spiritual heaven where God dwells. The word “heaven” (Hebrew shamayim, Greek ouranos) is used by Bible writers in basically three different ways. It is used to refer to the atmospheric heavens in which the airplanes fly, the birds soar, and the clouds gather (Genesis 1:20; Jeremiah 4:25; Matthew 6:26, ASV). “Heaven(s)” also is used in the Bible when referring to the firmament where we find the Sun, Moon, and stars—the sidereal heavens, or outer space (Genesis 1:14-15; Psalm 19:4,6; Isaiah 13:10). The third “heaven” frequently mentioned in Scripture is the spiritual heaven in which Jehovah dwells (Psalm 2:4; Hebrews 9:24), and where, one day, the faithful will live forevermore (Revelation 21:18-23; John 14:1-3; cf. 2 Corinthians 12:2-3). [NOTE: The word “firmament” (meaning expanse) is used in the same three ways “heaven” is used. Thus, what is said about heaven also can be said of the firmament (cf. Genesis 1:20; Genesis 1:17; Psalm 150:1).] The context of John 3 clearly indicates that Jesus is referring to the spiritual heavens wherein God dwells (cf. John 3:27). 2 Kings 2:11, however, is not as clear. The writer of 2 Kings easily could have meant that the body of Elijah miraculously ascended up high into the air never to been seen by anyone on Earth again. Nowhere does the text indicate that he left Earth at that moment to dwell in God’s presence. He definitely went somewhere, but we have no evidence that he was transferred to the actual throne room of God Almighty.

The Bible indicates that when God’s faithful servants leave this Earth, their spirits are taken to dwell in a place referred to as paradise (or “the bosom of Abraham”—Luke 16:19-31). Recall when Jesus was fastened to the cross, and told the penitent thief, “Today, you will be with Me in Paradise” (Luke 23:43). The word paradise is of Persian derivation, and means a “garden” or “park.” Where was it that Jesus and the thief went? Neither of them went to heaven to be with God the Father on that very day, for in John 20:17 after His resurrection, Jesus reassured Mary that He had not yet ascended to the Father. So where did Jesus and the thief go after dying on the cross? Peter gave the answer to that question in his sermon in Acts 2 when he quoted Psalm 16. Acts 2:27 states that God would not abandon Christ’s soul in hades, nor allow Christ to undergo decay. So while Christ’s body was placed in a tomb for three days, Christ’s spirit went to hades. [NOTE: The word hades occurs ten times in the New Testament, and always refers to the unseen realm of the dead—the receptacle of disembodied spirits where all people who die await for the Lord’s return and judgment. One part of hades, where Jesus and the thief went, is known as paradise.] Peter argued that David, who penned Psalm 16, was not referring to himself, since David’s body was still in the tomb (Acts 2:29), and his spirit was still in the hadean realm (Acts 2:34). Acts 2 indicates that a faithful servant of God does not go directly to be with God the Father when he dies; rather, he goes to a holding place in hades known as paradise—the same place where Abraham went after he died (Luke 16), and the same place where the spirit of Elijah went after he was caught up from the Earth. In short, the Bible does not teach that Elijah left Earth to begin immediately dwelling in the presence of the Father (where Jesus was before His incarnation—John 1:1). Thus, technically he did not ascend to the “place” whence Jesus came.

For the sake of argument, consider for a moment that the skeptic is right, and that Elijah’s spirit did not go to paradise, but was taken to dwell in the very presence of God. Could Jesus still have made the statement He did, and yet not be inaccurate? I believe so. Notice again the response to Nicodemus’ question, “How can these things be?” Jesus said: “If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things? No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man” (John 3:12-13, emp. added). It may be that Jesus meant nothing more than that no one has ever gone up to heaven “by his own act” or “on his own terms” (see Bullinger, 1888, pp. 281-282). Elijah and Enoch had been taken by God, which is different than freely ascending up into heaven on one’s own terms. Furthermore, Jesus’ words, “No one has ascended to heaven,” also could have meant that no one has ever gone up into heaven to then return and speak firsthand about what he saw, and to spread the same saving message that Jesus preached. Jesus was emphasizing to Nicodemus how no one on Earth at that time was revealing such spiritual truths as Christ was, because no one ever had ascended to heaven to then return and talk about what he had seen and learned. Such seems to have been the main point Jesus was making in John 3:13. No one on Earth had seen what Jesus had seen, and thus could not teach what He taught.

Truly, the skeptic’s accusation that Jesus either lied or was mistaken regarding his comment to Nicodemus about no one having ascended to heaven, is unsubstantiated. Perhaps the word heaven used in 2 Kings 2:11 was not meant to convey the idea of the spiritual heavens in which God dwells. Or, considering the Bible’s teaching on departed spirits of the righteous being in a holding place known as paradise, and not in the actual presence of Almighty God, Jesus could have meant that no person has ever ascended to the throne room of God from which He came. Furthermore, it also is interesting to note that Nicodemus, being “a man of the Pharisees” (John 3:1), and thus one who would have been very well acquainted with the details of the Old Testament, did not respond to Jesus by saying, “Wait a minute Rabbi. What about Elijah and Enoch? Isn’t it written in the law and prophets that they ascended to heaven?” Surely, had Jesus contradicted something in the law and the prophets, it would have been brought to His attention, especially by a Pharisee. Yet, the apostle John never records such a statement.

Admittedly, at first glance, it might appear as if the statements, “Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven” (2 Kings 2:11), and, “No man has ascended to heaven” (John 3:13), are contradictory. However, when a person considers all of the possible solutions to the alleged problem, he must admit that such an interpretation is unjustified.

John 3:13—How could Christ say no one has ascended to heaven when Elijah had?

Problem: Jesus declared in this text that “No one has ascended to heaven...” However, the OT records Elijah’s ascension into heaven in a chariot (2 Kings 2:11).

Solution: In this context, Jesus is setting forth His superior knowledge of heavenly things. In essence He is saying, “No other human being can speak from firsthand knowledge about these things, as I can, since I came down from heaven.” He is claiming that no one has ascended to heaven to bring down the message that He brought. In no way is He denying that anyone else is in heaven, such as Elijah and Enoch (Gen. 5:24). Rather, Jesus is simply claiming that no one on earth has gone to heaven and returned with a message such as He offered to them.

In 2 Chronicles 21:12–15, we read that King Jehoram of Judah received a letter from Elijah. But based on the chronology of events in 2 Kings, we know that Elijah had been taken to heaven alive in a whirlwind by that point. So did Elijah write a letter from heaven? And is it possible he personally delivered it? Let’s look at the different potential answers to these questions.

Known by His Evil Deeds?

We know from 2 Kings 1:17 that either Ahaziah or Jehoram was king of Israel when Elijah was taken to heaven. We also know from the same verse that Jehoram of Judah was reigning in at least his second year as coregent with his father Jehoshaphat (when compared with 2 Kings 3:1). So we know that Elijah lived at least until the second year of Jehoram of Judah’s coregency and quite possibly longer. We have no idea how much time took place between 2 Kings 1:17–18 and 2 Kings 2:1. It may have been a few months but likely not much longer based on 2 Kings 3:11–14, at which point we know Elijah had been taken to heaven and Elisha was prophet in his stead. But we know that Elijah would have witnessed Jehoram of Judah as a prince and a coregent with his father. Perhaps Elijah had noticed a tendency in young Jehoram of Judah for evil, and based on this he wrote the letter (likely giving it to the prophetic schools of the sons of the prophets who were at Bethel or Jericho (2 Kings 2:3–5)). Elijah must also have received some prophetic insight of the murderous deeds of Jehoram upon his ascension to the throne (2 Chronicles 21:4) and his death after eight years of reign (2 Chronicles 21:15) and recorded this in a letter before he died.

Prophetic Vision?

It is also possible that the entire letter was prophetic. God gave Elijah intricate details of what the reign of Jehoram of Judah would be like, and Elijah wrote it down along with the prophesied death pronounced by God beforehand. It was not unusual that a prophet be given insight about a future leader. In 1 Kings 13 an unnamed prophet declared that King Jeroboam’s altar in Bethel would be desecrated by a king named Josiah of Judah (and this occurred about 300 years later). Cyrus was prophesied by name in Isaiah 44 and 45, over 300 years before he was born, and Alexander the Great was prophesied by Daniel in Daniel 8:5–21, though unnamed, more than 200 years before he was born. In a similar manner then, Elijah prophetically received insight and wrote the letter. He could have entrusted it to the school of prophets and asked it to be delivered when Jehoram became openly idolatrous. Once the king appointed high places to be built, which happened in 2 Chronicles 21:11, this met the criteria and the letter was given to King Jehoram.

Partially Written?

The letter may have been started by Elijah and entrusted to Elisha to finish or entirely written by Elisha, who was alive and on earth during the full reign of King Jehoram of Judah. As we read in 2 Kings 2:15, it is said of Elisha that the spirit of Elijah rested on him. So Elisha, writing in the spirit of Elijah, was aware of the murderous treachery of Jehoram of Judah and also his swift decline into idolatry, and the letter was attributed to Elijah.

And even though John the Baptist denied that he was Elijah (John 1:21), Jesus told his disciples that John, because he came in the same spirit and power, was Elijah (Matthew 17:12–13). But prior to stating that, Jesus also told his disciples that Elijah was to come (17:11, and Mark 9:12) using the future tense, to “restore all things” meaning that John the Baptist was not literally Elijah. Recall that this discourse occurred after the transfiguration of Jesus, where Elijah appeared with Moses (Matthew 17:1-9) yet Jesus speaks of Elijah’s coming "to restore all things" as still future, Likewise, Elisha could have been described as Elijah (see 2 Kings 2:15) since he had the same spirit (jealous for the Word and worship of God and bold in his denunciation of false worship).

Keep in mind that in Scripture it is not uncommon for a person to be credited with something, even though that action is accomplished or delivered by an intermediary. If a king sent an emissary, the words he said were considered the very words of the king (2 Kings 18:28–32). And when word was sent via King Ahaziah’s emissaries to answer the questions of the king himself (2 Kings 1:2–6), Elijah responded to Ahaziah directly even though he was speaking to messengers, not the king himself. Just so, Elijah could be credited with a prophecy that was delivered after his death, since Elisha or the school of the prophets could have been acting on his orders from before his death.

A Letter from Heaven?

> Whether partially or entirely prophetic, or not prophetic at all and delivered from heaven, we can be sure that the Bible is true and inspired (breathed out) by God (2 Timothy 3:16).

Since Elijah did not die but was taken to heaven, it is possible Elijah wrote this letter from heaven. It is even possible that God sent Elijah physically back down to earth to deliver this letter. While this would be a rare if not unique occurrence in the Old Testament (depending on whether Samuel’s appearance to Saul in 1 Samuel 28:14–19 was really Samuel), we know that God sent Elijah back to earth at the Transfiguration of Jesus, so it is not out of the realm of possibility nor precedence. However, nothing in the text states that Elijah personally delivered the letter, so it is more likely that the letter was delivered by Elijah to Elisha or the school of prophets, who then gave it to Jehoram. While this last possibility may be the most unusual method, ironically it is the least prophetic, as Elijah would have seen all the events of Jehoram’s life occur and needed no prophetic insight for the letter.

Conclusion

Since Scripture does not specifically tell us which method was employed in the delivery of this letter, any hypothesis must be tentative. But all of the possibilities mentioned above are plausible and within the confines of information gleaned from the text. Whether partially or entirely prophetic, or not prophetic at all and delivered from heaven, we can be sure that the Bible is true and inspired (breathed out) by God (2 Timothy 3:16).