Exodus 4:1
"And Moses answered and said, If they believe me not, and do not listen to my voice (for they will say, God has not appeared to you), what shall I say to them?"
Does God's response to Moses in Exodus 4:1 imply He did not know the future?
In Exodus 4:1, Moses answers God: "But, behold, they will not believe me, nor hearken unto my voice: for they will say, The LORD hath not appeared unto thee." Open Theists understand this to be Moses questioning God and assume that God does not respond by telling Moses he has a false understanding of divine foreknowledge because God did not know the future for certain. But would that have actually answered Moses' objection? Hardly. God gave a tangible answer by showing His power -- mere assurances that He could see the future would just have been begged questions in context. This is not a recognition of a legitimate objection by Moses, but a deafening rebuttal to it.