A question is raised regarding Genesis 10:5 ("From these the maritime peoples spread out into their territories by their clans within their nations, each with its own language"): How can this be so, since the events of Babel were yet in the future and there was still one language?

Modern translations make this a parenthetical note, an expression of what would take place—not an event that was presently in effect.

Genesis 10:5 in the KJV reads:

> "By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands..."

Critics argue that there were no 'Gentiles' at this early stage in history, implying a severe anachronism. This objection relies heavily on the archaic translation choices of the KJV. Modern translations more properly render the underlying Hebrew word as 'nations' or 'peoples' (as the term broadly carries both meanings). It simply refers to the varied ethnic groups descending from Noah's sons spreading out across the territories.

Using the KJV again, McKinsey objects that there were no "Gentiles" at this time - ignoring the fact that modern translations more properly render this word "peoples" (it carries both meanings).