51. Did Jesus say everything openly (John 18:20) or did he speak secretly to his disciples (Mark 4:34, Matthew 13:10-11)?

(Category: misunderstood the historical context)

The reason people say that Jesus contradicts himself about saying things secretly or not, especially in relation to parables, is due to a lack of textual and cultural contextualising.

This answer requires significant background information, some of which I hope to give briefly here.

Firstly, what is a parable? It is a story given in order to clarify, emphasize or illustrate a teaching, not a teaching within itself. Jesus was a Jewish Rabbi. In Rabbinical literature there are approximately 4000 parables recorded. It was thought by Rabbis to be good practice to divide their instruction of the people into three parts, the latter third typically being two parables representative to the first two thirds. Jesus carries on in this tradition with just over one third of his recorded instruction being in the form of parables. He drew upon a wealth of images that the Israelis of his day knew, using common motifs such as plants, animals etc. Therefore the point of each of Jesus' parables was clear to all the listeners, which can be seen from the Gospels too. Parables were so rich and also so subtle that not only could they drive home a clear and simple point to the ordinary listener, but the scholars could turn them over and over in their mind, deriving greater and greater meaning from them. So, Jesus often expanded on the meaning of a parable to his disciples, his close students, in response to their inquiry or to instruct them further as any Jewish Rabbi would.

This can be seen from reading Mark 4:34 in context. For it says, "With many similar parables Jesus spoke the word to them *[the crowds], as much as they could understand. He did not say anything to them without using a parable [to clarify, emphasize or illustrate the teaching]. *But when he was alone with his own disciples he explained everything *[taught them more, for they could understand more than the crowds]." *Mark 4:33-34.

Therefore parables were not secret teachings. They are not esoteric knowledge given only to the initiated. It makes no sense (nor has any historical basis) to say that Jesus went around confusing people. He went around in order to teach and instruct people. So when Jesus was asked while on trial in court (John 18:20) about his teaching, he says something to the words of "I taught publicly - everyone heard my words. You know I taught. I did not teach in secret." He was right.

As all this is true, what are these "secrets of the kingdom of heaven" which Jesus speaks of? The only 'secret' ("the mystery hidden for long ages past, but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writing by the command of the eternal God, so that the nations might believe and obey him" (Romans 16:25-26) is that Jesus is Lord!

This secret was that Jesus' mission was foretold by the prophets, that he was the fulfillment of these prophecies and the greatest revelation that would ever be given to mankind. His words were not only for the saving of people, but also for the judging of people because they were "ever hearing but never understanding, ever seeing but never perceiving" (Matthew 13:14) as many of the hearers of the parables were unwilling to repent and submit to God.

Many people enjoyed Jesus' teaching, came for the nice moral discourses and the excellent parables, but not many followed him as the cost was too great (see Luke 9:57-61, 14:25-27, 33). But it was these things his disciples were beginning to understand because they truly followed Jesus. The secrets of the kingdom of heaven is what he said to his disciples following (and explaining) Matthew 13:10-11:

"But blessed are your eyes because they see, and your ears because they hear *[unlike the crowds]. For I tell you the truth, many prophets and righteous men longed to see what you see but did not see it, and to hear what you hear but did not hear it"* [as they did not live during the lifetime of Jesus - all the prophets were before him].

The secret is Jesus is Lord, Jesus is king, Jesus is Messiah, Jesus is the one all the prophets spoke of, the salvation of mankind, God's greatest revelation, the Alpha and the Omega (Revelation 21:6-8, 22:12-16), the only way to be right with God (John 3:36, Romans 6:23).

- John 18:20, “I spoke openly to the world, I always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where the Jews always meet, and in secret I have said nothing.”

- Mark 4:12, “in order that while seeing, they may see and not perceived; and while hearing they may hear and not understand lest they return and be forgiven.”

- Mark 4:34, “and He did not speak
to them without a parable; but He was explaining everything privately to His own disciples.”

Two important points need to be addressed here. First, the word “always” in John 18:20 is pantote. It occurs 42 times in the Greek New Testament and has several different meanings, depending on context. Some of its usages include:

- It can mean without exception:

Jesus is always with Christians (Matt. 28:20).

- Jesus always did that which pleases the Father (John 8:29).

- The Father always hears the Son (John 11:42).

- It can mean frequently:

A son always with his father (Luke 15:31).

- “men ought always to pray” (Luke 18:1).

- “always abounding in the work of the Lord” (1 Cor. 15:58).

- “Giving thanks always for all things” (Eph. 5:20).

- “I thank my God…Always in every prayer” (Phil. 1:3).

- “praying always for you” (Col. 1:3).

- “Rejoice evermore” (1 Thess. 5:16).

- Other

“evermore give us this bread” (John 6:34).

- “your time is always opportune” (John 7:6).

Jesus and Paul both used the word in a sense other than the literal “without exception.” Since words mean what they mean in context and Jesus obviously knew He spoke in other locations (in a boat, mountain top, field, etc.), He wasn’t lying. He was using the word in the same sense as many of us do when we exaggerate to make a point.

Second, Jesus said that He spoke nothing in secret. Is this a problem? Not at all. Jesus knew, for example, that He prayed by Himself (Matt. 14:22). Was Jesus simply lying, or like so many people of the time (and now), did He speak with the fluidity of language, using words in non-literal ways? We know He did this in many instances. He did it with the word “always” in Luke 15:31 and Luke 18:1 where it means “frequently.” He also used the word “never” in the Parable of the Prodigal Son in Luke 15:29 when He has the son say that he had “never” neglected a command of his father. What son perfectly keeps his father’s commands (except Jesus, of course)? In Luke 18:19 Jesus says, “No one is good except God alone.” Was Jesus saying that He Himself wasn’t good? Not at all. The context is dealing with how a certain ruler had addressed Him as being good. We need to ask, was Jesus saying that He wasn’t good or that no one else can be good or do good things? Of course not. Consider the word “alone” in John 12:24 where Jesus said, “unless a grain of wheat falls into the earth and dies, it remains by itself alone.” Did Jesus mean that a grain of wheat has to be alone with no other grains around it?

Obviously, Jesus used words in figurative ways the same as anyone else does. Is it fair to extract His sayings, apply literal definitions to certain words, and then pronounce that Jesus lied? No, it isn’t. Especially when we look at the context of John 18:20 where Jesus is talking about not being secretive about His teachings, which is why He mentions speaking in the synagogues and the Temple.

Mark 4:12 and 4:34 have nothing to do with Jesus speaking in secret. They deal with speaking in parables.