Some point to Matthew's use of "their synagogue" as pointing to a break between Christianity and Judaism (Matthew 4:23, 9:35, 10:17, etc.), which would have occurred after 70 A.D. But it is questionable whether this is always an adversarial "their" -- it may refer to provenance, as in Matt. 4:23: "And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues..." -- would not this mean simply the Galileans' synagogues?

Similarly, some regard the general Jewish-Christian tension perceived in Matthew as evidence for a late date; but there was plenty of Jewish-Christian tension in the time of Acts as well, and Jesus certainly caused the Pharisees and other groups some headaches. Tensions between the Jewish establishment and splinter groups (like the Qumranites) did not begin in the mid-first century; and Paul's own testimony of dissonance with Christians as a Pharisee, and James' death at the hands of the Jewish establishment prior to 70 (as offered by Josephus), indicate that disagreements between the parties existed much earlier than 70 AD. Nor is there is any reason to suppose that Acts is anachronizing and that relations were fully peaceful between the Church and the Jews until after 70.