Some skeptics deem this statement illogical -- but how is this so? It is even on the surface no more so than the economic principle that capital breeds income, whereas a lack of capital brings ruin.

However, our verse is not even economic in nature. It is in the midst of an explanation by Jesus as to why he teaches in parables -- it is to keep his teachings obscure to outsiders. This was not a practice of Jesus exclusively. Greek teachers like Plato, Pythagoras, and others always provided a "higher level" of teaching for their own students (Keener, Matthew commentary, 378ff). Jewish teachers too referred to the law as a mystery that was obscure to outsiders and to the wicked. Only those who "patiently press into the inner circle" will get the point.

Thus the application of our verse: Whoever has understanding, will be given more; whoever does not have understanding, what little he does understand, God will remove from their hearts.

Problem: God is presented in the Bible as fair and evenhanded (Rom. 2:11; Gen. 18:25). Jesus, as God incarnate, is set up as the perfect moral example (Heb. 4:15). However, in this passage Jesus said we should take away from “whoever does not have” and give to “whoever has.” What could be more unfair?

Solution: “Give to him who has and take from him who has not” is a proverbial saying used by Jesus in this context to mean that when Jesus spoke in parables (Matt. 13:10), the result was that those who thought they had some insight into the kingdom had less because they were more confused. Their unbelief caused their confusion, so that “seeing they do not see, and hearing they do not hear” (v.13). On the other hand, those who received Jesus’ words (namely, His disciples) had even a greater understanding than before.