In verses 27:8 and 28:15, Matthew refers to conditions in 30 A.D. that are still as they are 'to this day.' Critics suggest that this means a late date. But how long can we wait before saying 'to this day'? Would not 30 years (a 60 date for Matthew) be sufficient? Or even 20 (a 50 date)? We are only 18 years, as of this writing, past the destruction of the Berlin Wall, and it is hardly incoherent to say that it remains destroyed 'to this day.'