Matthew 28:18
Does 'all power' in Matthew 28:18 contradict 2 Thessalonians 2:9?
Is Matthew 28:18 ('All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth') contradictory to 2 Thessalonians 2:9, which refers to the 'coming of the lawless one by the activity of Satan will be with all power and with pretended signs and wonders'?
No. 'All power' in these passages means the ability to do certain supernatural feats. Just because two people have the same quality or property does not mean they are the same, nor does the use of 'all power' by two persons mean the usage is mutually exclusive. Moreover, two different Greek words are in use: exousia in Matthew, which has the connotation of authority, and dunamis in 2 Thessalonians, which merely refers to miracle-working power.
Does Jesus having 'all power' contradict the lawless one having 'all power'?
Some ask if this is contradictory to Matthew 28:18, where Jesus says, "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth." However, two different Greek words are in use: exousia in Matthew, which has the connotation of supreme authority, and dunamis in 2 Thessalonians, which refers to miracle-working power. The "lawless one" will be permitted to perform certain supernatural feats, but this does not equal the divine authority of Christ. Furthermore, regarding Psalm 136:9 ("To him who alone doeth great wonders"), the adjective "great" distinguishes God's unparalleled acts, such as the creation of the heavens and the earth, from lesser signs.
Is Jesus contradictory about his authority?
These verses are not contradictory. The apparent tension arises from confusing 'power' (exousia) with 'nature' - who sits on Jesus' right and left hand is not a matter of power or authority, but a matter of established order. One may as well speak of the 'authority' to make two and two equal four.
Who alone can do wonders?
Isn't this contradictory to Matthew 28:18, where Jesus says, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth? No -- "all power" in these passages means the ability to do certain supernatural feats. The "lawless one" will be allowed to do when he/she/it comes. Just because two people have the same quality/property does not mean they are the same, nor does the use "all power" by two persons mean the usage is mutually exclusive. Moreover, two different Greek words are in use: exousia in Matthew, which has the connotation of authority, and dunamis in 2 Thess., which merely refers to miracle-working power.
Well, how about Ps. 136:9, which says "To him who alone doeth great wonders..."? The adjective "great" -- not used in 2 Thess. -- makes all the difference. Others can do smaller wonders. Only God does great ones. (Note that the list following in Psalms is of miracles of creation of the earth and heavens.)
Why Was Jesus Unable to Perform Mighty Works in Nazareth?
Mark 6:5 notes that Jesus:
> "could there do no mighty work, save that he laid his hands upon a few sick folk, and healed them."
This is contrasted with Matthew 28:18, where the resurrected Christ claims:
> "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth."
Critics claim the former verse proves Jesus lacked divine power. The limitation in Mark 6 was not a deficiency of raw supernatural power, but a matter of covenantal and relational boundaries. The text explicitly links this inability to the profound unbelief and hostile rejection by the local populace. Christ generally refused to perform miracles as mere parlor tricks for hostile, unrepentant audiences; the miraculous required a context of receptive faith.