Matthew 5:22
Did Jesus contradict his own command against anger?
Skeptics argue there is a contradiction when Jesus says 'Anyone who is angry with his brother shall be liable to judgment' (Matthew 5:22), yet Jesus himself displayed anger on several occasions (e.g., Mark 3:5). The resolution to this lies in the social context of the ancient world. The command in Matthew specifically condemns illegitimate anger against a 'brother'—a member within one's own ingroup. The individuals Jesus directed his anger toward were not his 'brothers' in this covenantal sense; rather, they were opponents and religious leaders who threatened the spiritual well-being of the group. Righteous anger directed at outsiders who were corrupting the truth falls under the rubric of protecting the ingroup, a concept perfectly aligned with the ancient understanding of community love and loyalty.
Was Jesus a hypocrite for calling people fools?
Skeptics argue that Jesus contradicted Himself by warning that whoever says "Thou fool" will be in danger of hellfire (Matthew 5:22), yet later calling the Pharisees "fools" (Matthew 23:17, Luke 11:40) and appearing to contradict the Psalmist (Psalm 14:1).
Reading Matthew 5:22 in its entirety resolves the issue: "That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment... but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire." Jesus is explicitly talking about relations with one's brother (fellow believers) and words said in anger to that brother. In Matthew 23:17, Jesus is not talking to His brethren, but to the Pharisees. In line with Psalm 14:1, He was referring to the Pharisees as unbelievers in His work. Thus, the warning in Matthew 5 does not apply here.
Furthermore, in Luke 11:40, the Greek word used for "foolish" is aphron, not the word moros used in Matthew 5:22. aphron carries a connotation of being an "unbeliever" rather than the reference to plain stupidity that moros carries.
Finally, while skeptics may object that this language is offensive, the polemic registered here was well within the range of stock accusations made among various parties in first-century Judaism. Such exchanges of rhetoric were perfectly acceptable in that time period, and skeptics cannot arbitrarily impose modern sensibilities upon ancient cultures.
Was Jesus a Hypocrite?
A man who instructs a person to refrain from doing something he deems inappropriate, but then proceeds to do the very thing he forbade the other person to do, is considered a hypocrite. A preacher who teaches about the sinfulness of drunkenness (cf. Galatians 5:21), but then is seen a short while later stumbling down the street, intoxicated with alcohol, could be accused of being guilty of hypocrisy. Some have accused Jesus of such insincere teaching. Allegedly, in the very sermon in which He condemned the Pharisees for their unrighteousness (Matthew 5:20), Jesus revealed His own sinfulness by way of condemning those who used a word He sometimes uttered. Based upon His forbiddance of the use of the word “fool” in Matthew 5:22, and His use of this word elsewhere, skeptics have asserted that Jesus (Whom the Bible claims “committed no sin, nor was deceit found in His mouth”—1 Peter 2:22; cf. 2 Corinthians 5:21), was guilty of hypocrisy (see Morgan, 2003; Wells, 2001). In Matthew 5:21-22 Jesus stated:
You have heard that it was said to those of old, “You shall not murder, and whoever murders will be in danger of the judgment.” But I say to you that whoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment. And whoever says to his brother, “Raca!” shall be in danger of the council. But whoever says, “You fool!” shall be in danger of hell fire (Matthew 5:21-22, emp. added).
Whereas in this passage Jesus warned against the use of the word “fool,” in other passages Jesus openly used this term to describe various people. Near the end of the “Sermon on the Mount,” Jesus likened the person who heard His teachings, but did not follow them, to “a foolish man who built his house on the sand” (Matthew 7:26). When teaching about the need to be prepared for His second coming, Jesus compared those who were not ready for His return to five foolish virgins (Matthew 25:1-12). Then, while Jesus was condemning the Pharisees for their inconsistency in matters of religion, He stated: “Woe to you, blind guides, who say, ‘Whoever swears by the temple, it is nothing; but whoever swears by the gold of the temple, he is obliged to perform it.’ Fools and blind! For which is greater, the gold or the temple that sanctifies the gold?” (Matthew 23:16-17; cf. 23:18-19). The question that some ask in response to these alleged hypocritical statements is, “How could Jesus condemn the use of the word ‘fool’ in Matthew 5:22, but then proceed to use this word on other occasions?”
First, for Jesus’ statement in Matthew 5:22 to contradict His actions recorded in other passages, the skeptic must prove that the term “fool,” as used in 5:22, is the same word used elsewhere. The word raca (Greek ΄ρακά), used earlier in Matthew 5:22, is a transliteration of the Aramaic term whose precise meaning is disputed. [Most likely, it means “an empty one who acts as a numskull” (Lenski, 1961, p. 219; cf. also Robertson, 1930, p. 44).] The exact meaning of the term “fool” (mōre, Greek Μωρέ) in this context also is debated. “Most scholars take it, as the ancient Syrian versions did, to men you fool” (Bauer, et. al., 1957, p. 533, emp. in orig.). Although some assume that mōre is the vocative of the Greek moros, in all likelihood,
just as “Raca” is a non-Greek word, so is the word mōre that Jesus used here. If so, then it is a word which to a Jewish ear meant “rebel (against God)” or “apostate”; it was the word which Moses in exasperation used to the disaffected Israelites in the wilderness of Zin…(Numbers 20:10). For these rash words, uttered under intense provocation, Moses was excluded from the Promised Land (Kaiser, et. al., 1996, p. 359).
Thus, it is quite possible that mōre (translated “[Y]ou fool” in Matthew 5:22) is not the normal Greek moros (fool) that Jesus applied to the Pharisees on other occasions (Matthew 23:17,19), but represents the Hebrew moreh (cf. Numbers 20:10). [For this reason, translators of the American Standard Version added a marginal note to this word in Matthew 5:22: “Or, Moreh, a Hebrew expression of condemnation.”] Obviously, if two different words are under consideration, Jesus logically could not be considered a hypocrite.
Second, it must be remembered that Jesus’ comments in Matthew 5:22 were made within a context where He was condemning unrighteous anger (5:21-26). Whereas the Pharisees condemned murder, but overlooked the evil emotions and attitudes that sometimes led to the shedding of innocent blood, Jesus condemned both the actions and the thoughts. Instead of dealing with only “peripheral” problems, Jesus went to the heart of the matter. As someone Who “knew what was in man” (John 2:25), Jesus was more than qualified to pronounce judgment upon the hypocritical Pharisees (cf. John 12:48). Like the unrighteousness that characterized the Pharisees’ charitable deeds (Matthew 6:1-4), prayers (6:5-15), fasting (16-18), and judgments (7:1-5), Jesus also condemned their unrighteous anger. [NOTE: Jesus did not condemn all anger (cf. Ephesians 4:26; John 2:13-17), only unrighteous anger.] It was in this context that Jesus warned against the use of the word “fool.” Jesus was not prohibiting a person from calling people “fools” if it was done in an appropriate manner (cf. Psalm 14:1), but He was forbidding it when done in the spirit of malicious contempt. He “warned against using the word fool as a form of abuse” that indicated “hatred in one’s heart toward others” (“Fool,” 1986; cf. Matthew 5:43-48). As in many other situations, it seems that the attitude, rather than actual words, is the focus of the prohibition.
While this verse, when taken in its context, is seen to be consistent with Jesus’ words and actions recorded elsewhere in the gospel accounts, His prohibition regarding the manner of a word’s usage should not be overlooked in the apologist’s effort to defend biblical inerrancy. We may call an atheist a “fool” for not acknowledging God’s existence (Psalm 14:1), but to do so in a hateful, malicious manner is sinful. Remember, the Christian is called to “give a defense to everyone” in a spirit of “meekness and fear” (1 Peter 3:15).
Matthew 23:17—Why did Jesus call people fools and yet condemn others for doing the same thing?
Problem: Jesus said, “whoever says [to his brother], `You fool!’ shall be in danger of hell fire” (Matt. 5:22). Yet He Himself said to the scribes and Pharisees, “Fools and blind!” (Matt. 23:17) The Apostle Paul, following suit, said, “O foolish Galatians” (Gal. 3:1; cf. 1 Cor. 15:36).
Solution: There are good reasons why there is a strong difference between the two uses of the term “fool.” First, this is another example of the principle that the same word can be used with different meanings in different contexts (see Introduction). For instance, the word “dog” can be used of a canine animal or a detested person.
Second, in Matthew 5, it is used in the context of someone who is “angry” with his brother, indicating a hatred. Neither Jesus nor Paul harbored hatred toward those to whom they applied the term. Thus, their use of the term “fool” does not violate Jesus’ prohibition against calling others a fool.
Third, technically speaking, Jesus only commanded that a “brother” (Matt. 5:22) not be called a “fool,” not an unbeliever. In fact the scriptural description of a fool is one who “has said in his heart, `There is no God’ ” (Ps. 14:1). In view of this, one can see the seriousness of calling a brother a fool; it is tantamount to calling him an unbeliever. Hence, when He who “knew what was in man” (cf. John 2:25) called unbelievers “fools,” it was a most appropriate description of what they really were.
Calling People Fools: Righteous Judgment vs. Sinful Anger
# Calling People Fools: Righteous Judgment vs. Sinful Anger
Did Jesus Contradict Himself by Calling People Fools?
Jesus proclaimed that “whoever says, ‘You fool!’ will be liable to the hell of fire” (Matthew 5:22). However, there are instances throughout Scripture where people are called fools. David wrote, “The fool says in his heart, ‘There is no God’” (Psalm 14:1). Paul told the Galatians they were foolish (Galatians 3:1). Jesus Himself called the Pharisees and scribes "fools and blind" in Matthew 23:17.
Does the Lord’s warning in Matthew 5:22 contradict His own actions and those of the prophets and apostles?
The Context of the Heart
When studying Scripture, we must consider the context and the spiritual intent. In Matthew 5:21–22, Jesus said:
> "But I say to you that everyone who is angry with his brother will be liable to judgment; whoever insults his brother will be liable to the council; and whoever says, 'You fool!' will be liable to the hell of fire."
Jesus is addressing the inner passions of the heart—specifically, irrational anger, hatred, and malice. He equates the venomous, hateful insult of a brother with the spiritual root of murder. To call someone a fool out of spite, arrogance, or a desire to degrade them is a grave sin.
However, when God, Jesus, or the prophets use the term "fool," it is an objective declaration of spiritual reality, not an insult born of sinful anger. When Jesus called the Pharisees fools (Matthew 23:17), He was righteously diagnosing their spiritual blindness: they glorified the gold of the temple rather than the God of the temple.
The condemnation in Matthew 5 is against the passion of wrath and malicious insult. The use of "fool" by Christ and the apostles is a prophetic rebuke of spiritual blindness meant to call people to repentance. There is no contradiction between prohibiting hateful insults and exercising righteous, diagnostic judgment.
Did Jesus Contradict Himself by Calling People Fools?
Why are people called fools in Scripture even though Jesus told us not to call people fools?
The “Problem”
Jesus proclaimed that “whoever says, ‘You fool!’ will be liable to the hell of fire” (Matthew 5:22). However, there are instances throughout Scripture where people are called fools. For example, David wrote, “The fool says in his heart, ‘There is no God’” (Psalm 14:1). Paul told the Galatians they were foolish (Galatians 3:1). Jesus even said the Pharisees and scribes were fools in Matthew 23:17.
So does the Lord’s claim in Matthew 5:22 contradict these other passages where people are actually called fools?
The Solution
When studying Scripture, one of the first principles to keep in mind is the context. Therefore, let us consider the entire context of what Jesus said while considering this alleged contradiction.
You have heard that it was said to those of old, “You shall not murder; and whoever murders will be liable to judgment.” But I say to you that everyone who is angry with his brother will be liable to judgment; whoever insults his brother will be liable to the council; and whoever says, “You fool!” will be liable to the hell of fire. (Matthew 5:21–22)
Jesus referred to the generally understood fact that murderers will be judged; however, he revealed the deeper issue by saying that not just murderers but anyone “who is angry with his brother will be liable to judgment.” Furthermore, Christ continued by mentioning that those who insult their brother or call their brother a fool would be held liable for those words.
Jesus did not focus just on an individual’s actions such as murder but also on the heart and attitude behind those actions. A heart full of anger toward someone can lead to insults, name-calling, and even murder. In other words, murder is not the only symptom of a corrupted heart, which is the main point Jesus made.
He demonstrated that sin is an issue of the heart rather than just the actions.
Does this mean that calling people foolish is always wrong? Jesus emphasized the fact that not just murderers will be judged by saying that those who call people fools will also be judged. He demonstrated that sin is an issue of the heart rather than just the actions.
If you were to study each biblical example where God calls someone a fool, you will find a righteous reason behind it. When Jesus called the Pharisees and scribes fools in Matthew 23:17, he explained that they were satisfying themselves instead of giving glory to God. They glorified the gold in the temple rather than the temple of God that housed the gold, which is foolish.
Also, keep in mind that Jesus is the judge and the lawgiver with perfect knowledge, so he is able to do what humanity cannot do (James 4:11–12). And in everything, we must make sure we are basing our actions and words on the principles of Scripture, and if we are to judge others, we judge righteously from God’s Word (John 7:24).
Conclusion
Matthew 5:21–22 serves as a reminder for us to “abstain from every form of evil” (1 Thessalonians 5:22), which includes issues of the heart and not just evil deeds. When we understand the words of Jesus in their full context, there is clearly no contradiction. When we take one statement out of context in an attempt to prove an unfounded idea, we fail to interpret God’s Word correctly.