> “I and the Father are one.” 31 The Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God,” (John 10:30-33)

What was it that Jesus had said or done that caused the Jews to say that He was claiming to be God? Was it “I and the Father are one”? If so, why would that cause the Jews to want to kill Jesus? Perhaps it was something else. Maybe it was something Jesus said elsewhere that made them so angry.

There are only two places in John where the Jews wanted to kill Jesus with stones. Both of these occur after Jesus spoke and made a claim about Himself. The first was in John 8:58-59, and the second was in John 10:30-33. Here is the context of both verses:

There is absolutely no reference to stones or stoning between John 8:59 and John 10:31; but in those two verses, the Jews responded to Jesus’ words by wanting to kill Him. What was it that Jesus said in both cases that brought such a violent reaction? Here they are again . . .

The first time the Jews wanted to kill Jesus was when He said, “Before Abraham was, I am.” The second time wasn’t until John 10:31 when they again wanted to kill Him after Jesus said, “I and the Father are one.” Let’s look at these statements of Jesus.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that John 8:58 should be translated as ” . . . before Abraham was, I have been,” not “I am.” But what is it about saying, “I have been” that would motivate the Jews to want to kill Jesus? Was Jesus simply stating that He pre-existed? If so, they would have thought Him greatly deceived and not worthy of being killed. Do we see any prior account of anyone in the Bible being killed for claiming to pre-exist? No. It isn’t blasphemy to state that you have pre-existed. It is, however, blasphemy to claim to be God; after all, that is what the Jews accused Jesus of claiming for Himself in John 10:31 when they again picked up stones to kill Him. What was it that Jesus said that motivated them in John 10:31 and in John 8:59 to want to kill Jesus?

From what I have seen, the greater number of Bibles translate John 8:58 as, “Before Abraham was, I am.” The words “I am” are “ego eimi” in the Greek; and the construction is in the present tense. “I have been” is in the perfect tense in English, but it is the Greek of John 8:58 that is in the present tense and not the perfect tense (I have been). Remember, the Jews weren’t mad at Jesus for speaking English (I have been) but for speaking Greek (I am). Therefore, what is it about the statement “Before Abraham was, I am” that would cause such anger and warrant Him being stoned to death?

Some say that in John 8, Jesus had said and done so many things that by the time Jesus said, “I am” in verse 58, the Jews simply snapped and tried to kill Him. But, that doesn’t hold with the Jews’ statement in John 10:33 where they tell Jesus the reason; it was for claiming to be God. So, again, what is it about Jesus saying, “Before Abraham was, I am” (or, “I have been”) that was so volatile and worthy of death according to the Jews?

The most natural explanation I see is that Jesus was referring back to when Moses was at the burning bush and asked God what His name was. God said, “I am that I am. Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, I am has sent me to you.” (Exodus 3:14). If we were to consider this as an explanation, then it makes sense why the Jews wanted to kill Jesus since his statement “Before Abraham was, I am” would logically cause the Pharisees to think Jesus was claiming to be God–which is exactly what they stated later as the reason for them wanting to kill Him.

There are, however, those who say that Jesus could not have been referring to Exodus 3:14, or that there is no reason to refer Christ’s statement to Exodus 3:14. But, if that is so, then what other explanation is there for the Jews’ desire to kill Jesus? What else would generate such a violent reaction from the Jews? Is there any other explanation that is suitable? Remember, the Jews gave their own reason for their anger. They said to Jesus, ” . . . You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.” (John 10:33).

Therefore, we need to ask the Jehovah’s Witness in what verse is it that Jesus was claiming to be God? Or, in what verse was it that could be construed and misinterpreted by the Jews to think that Jesus was claiming to be God?

Finally, notice that the Jews absolutely denied that Jesus was God in flesh. Interestingly, so do the Jehovah’s Witnesses. So, the Pharisees and the Jehovah’s Witnesses are in agreement about who Jesus is not.

John 10:30 is an interesting statement by Jesus. He said, “I and the Father are one.” What did Jesus mean? Was He saying that He and the Father were one in purpose? If so, wouldn’t the Jews claim the same thing as they sought to honor and serve God? Or perhaps, Jesus was saying they were of the same mind. If so, why didn’t Jesus say so? Could it be that Jesus was saying that He and the Father were the same person? But this wouldn’t make sense since Jesus said, “the Father and I”–designating that they are not the same person. Finally, could it be that Jesus was claiming to be of the same essence of the Father; that is, He was claiming to be divine? If so, then this would make sense since the Pharisees certainly claimed that Jesus was claiming to be God.

The Jehovah’s Witness Bible called the New World Translation translates John 10:33 not as “You being a man make yourself out to be God,” but as, “even because you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” Notice the NWT says “a god,” not “God.” This is typical of the Watchtower Organization which seeks to obliterate any mention of Jesus’ deity by altering the biblical text.

As you can see, out of 22 Bible versions, not one has “a god” translated as the Watchtower Organization does. Why? Because the Watchtower is biased against the deity of Christ and will take liberties to alter the English translation so as to suit its own theological needs.

On the contrary, I am doing no such thing. First of all, I do not agree with the Jews that Jesus is not God. It is the Jehovah’s Witnesses who agree with the Jews on this. Remember, the theology of the Jews is that Jesus is not God. Since I believe Jesus is God, I am not deriving my theology from them. Second, whether or not the Jews are correctly or incorrectly understanding Jesus isn’t the issue. The issue is what was it that Jesus said that caused them to say He was claiming to be God that so upset the Jews? If a Jehovah’s Witness cannot answer the question, then he doesn’t understand what is going on. It is simple. If he understood, then he could give an answer. If he can’t answer, then how can he understand the rest of the Bible since the Bible is about Jesus (John 5:39); and this issue is dealing with Jesus’ teachings about Himself? Third, the objection is a genetic fallacy; that is, it is saying that because the Pharisees said it, it can’t be true. This is like saying that because an atheist says something about Jesus, it can’t be true. Well, yes it can be true. Even atheists can understand what Jesus says and still not believe Him.

Jesus said in John 8:58, “Before Abraham was, I am.” This is a very important verse to Christians because it is one of the places we use to show that Jesus is God. We maintain that Jesus attributed the divine name of God (“I AM” from Exodus 3:14), to Himself, but this verse alone may not be sufficient to prove His deity. There is a combination of other verses that contribute to the doctrine. Nevertheless, many non-Christian groups deny that Jesus is God. Therefore, when they come to this verse, it must be dealt with. The reason is simple. If Jesus did say, “I am,” it would give strong evidence that Jesus was claiming to be God.

This paper will not attempt to analyze the Greek translation principles that have lead various Bibles to render John 8:58 as “I have been” or “I was in existence,” etc. Suffice it to say that the best-recognized translations which have sought literal renderings of the text have translated the verse as “I am”: NASB, NIV, KJV, RSV, etc.

The Jehovah’s Witness Watchtower organization claims that the best translation of John 8:58 is “Before Abraham was, I have been.” Notice that they do not have it say, “I am.”  Is it legitimate for the Watchtower organization to insist that John 8:58 is best translated as “I have been”? Let’s take a look.

Ego Eimi means “I am”

In Greek, the words recorded in John 8:58 are “‘prin abraam genesthai ego eimi.” Literally, this is “Before Abraham was existing, I am.” “Ego eimi” is literally, “I am.” This is the present tense. To say “I have been” is to use the perfect tense.  In Greek, he would have been “aemane,” but Jesus didn’t use it here.  He used the present tense “ego eimi” which is “I am.”

There are places, however, in the New Testament where the Greek present tense of ‘ego eimi‘ “I am” can be translated into the English perfect tense “I have been.” An example of this is John 14:9 where Jesus says, “Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me . . . “ In this verse, “Have I been” is originally the Greek present tense ‘ego eimi‘; but here, Jesus was answering the statement in verse 8, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.” Since in English it is awkward to say, “I am with you so long, and you still don’t know me . . . ,?” it is then rendered as, “Have I been with you so long, and you have not come to know me . . . ?” The translation of the Greek present into the English perfect tense is perfectly justifiable here because it doesn’t make sense in English, but is it the case with John 8:58? Must it be translated as “I have been”? No. There is no linguistic requirement to translate it as “I have been” particularly when you notice that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after he said, “ego eimi.”

Two views

Some say that the reason the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after He said, “Before Abraham was, I am” is that it was the last straw in a series of difficult and insulting things Jesus had been saying to the Jews in John chapter 8. Others say that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for saying “Before Abraham was, I am,” because “I am” is close to God saying “I am that I am” in Exodus 3:14. In other words, we can make the case that for Jesus to say, “Before Abraham was, I am” was equivalent to claiming God’s name for Himself. This is something the Jews would absolutely protest. Let’s look at the arguments:

The first argument states that Jesus had upset the Jews so much by what He had been saying that when he finally made his statement in verse 58, it was the last straw; the Jews snapped, and then they tried to kill him; but, they maintain, it wasn’t because Jesus was claiming the divine title. They had just had enough.

What had Jesus been saying? Following is a list of some key statements by Jesus in chapter 8.

1. “I am the light of the world” (8:12).
2. “I am He who bears witness of Myself, and the Father who sent Me bears witness of me” (8:18).
3. “You don’t know me or my Father” (8:19).
4. “You are from below, I am from above” (8:23).
5. “Unless you believe that I am, you shall die in your sins” (8:24).
6. “The things which I heard from Him [God the Father], these I speak to the world” (8:26).
7. “I speak these things as the Father taught me” (8:28).
8. “I always do the things that are pleasing to Him” (8:29).
9. “I speak the things which I have seen with My Father . . . “ (8:38).
10. ” . . . you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God, this Abraham did not do” (8:40).
11. ” . . . I proceeded forth and have come from God . . . “ (8:42).
12. “Truly, truly, I say to you, if anyone keeps My word he shall never see death” (8:51).
13. “It is my Father who glorifies Me . . . “ (8:54).
14. “Before Abraham was, I am” (8:58).

The preceding list has many profound statements. It is perfectly understandable that the Jews would be upset, but, it was Jesus’ statement in 8:58 that triggered their murderous attempt. Was it because Jesus said “Before Abraham was, I have been” or “Before Abraham was, I am”? Which would be the phrase most likely to be the last straw for the Jews? It is quite possible that either statement would be sufficient; but, of course, any claim by Jesus to the divine name would be a stronger motivation for the Jews to kill Him.

Also, notice statements  1, 5, 11, and 14.  These are clear declarations by Jesus where He exalts Himself to heavenly level.  The Jews could easily see this and would protest–particularly when Jesus said, “Before Abraham was, I am.” Since He did say, in Greek, “I am,” it is more likely that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy.  Consider Leviticus 24:16 which says, ‘Moreover, the one who blasphemes the name of the Lord shall surely be put to death; all the congregation shall certainly stone him” (NASB).

The connection with John 10:30-33

Capital punishment was only for serious sins: blasphemy, adultery, etc. From what I can see in the Bible, saying you had a preexistence isn’t blasphemy. However, claiming to be one with God is quite different.  In John 10:30-33, Jesus said, “I and the Father are one. The Jews took up stones again to stone him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning me?” 33“The Jews answered Him, ‘For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God” (NASB).

Between John 8:59 where the Jews picked up stones to kill Jesus and John 10:30-33 where they again picked up stones to kill him, there is no mention of stoning whatsoever. John 10:31 is referencing back to John 8:59 when it says “The Jews took up stones again to stone Him.” Note that they againwanted to kill Him, and this time they give the reason why. They said that Jesus was claiming to be God. Now, where would they get that idea? Could it have been where he said, “Before Abraham was, I am”? Could it be from where Jesus said, “I and the Father are one” (10:30)?  Since they wanted to kill Him both times, it would seem that Jesus had been making some very serious claims, or was it simply that the Pharisees misunderstood Jesus; and that Jesus never did claim to be God?

But, if Jesus was not claiming to be God in John 8:58 and 10:30, then what was it that He said that warranted such a violent response from the Jews in both cases? What phrase from Jesus did the Jews react to and what ‘misunderstanding’ did they have about what it was Jesus said that led them to claim that he was making Himself out to be God?

In my opinion, the best explanation for the Jews wanting to kill Jesus is that Jesus was claiming equality with God. They considered this blasphemy. These groups, like the religious leaders who opposed Jesus, deny who Jesus really is as well.

For further reading go to Who is Jesus according to the apostle John?

Jesus can be both God and the son of God because the terms don’t mean the same thing. When we say that Jesus is God (John 1:1, 14; Colossians 2:9; Hebrews 1:8), we are saying that Jesus possesses the divine nature (as well as human nature, see hypostatic union). But the term "Son of God" does not mean that Jesus is not God. Think about it. If the term "Son of God" meant that Jesus is not God, then does the term "Son of Man" mean that Jesus is not a man? Of course not. Likewise, if the term "Son of Man" means that Jesus is a man, then does it not imply that when it says Jesus is the "Son of God" that he is God? We ought not look at the ancient words found in Scripture and judge them by modern thinking.

> "For this reason, therefore, the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God," (John 5:18).

As you can see in this verse, Jesus was calling God his own Father, making himself equal to God. Therefore, the term Son of God is a designation of equality with God when it is a reference to Christ.

Jesus is the Son of God

The phrase "Son of God" occurs 44 times in the New American Standard Bible. Each time it is used of Christ. It is a title of his preeminence, holiness, and relationship to God the Father. In fact, we see that the Pharisees wanted to kill him for proclaiming he was the son of God

> "I and the Father are one." 31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, "I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?" 33 The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God." 34 Jesus answered them, "Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?" (John 10:30-36).

In this account we see the second instance of Jesus being threatened with stoning. The first one is a little earlier.

> "Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.’ 59 Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple," (John 8:58-59).

Jesus' words here are significant because he says he is the "I am." This is similar to what is found in Exodus.

> God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’" 15 God, furthermore, said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘The LORD, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is My name forever, and this is My memorial name to all generations," (Exodus 3:14-15).

When we combine all of this together, we see that Jesus was claiming the divine title for himself (John 8:58; Exodus 3:14-15) and that is why the Jews wanted to kill him (John 8:59 and John 10:31). The explanation given is that Jesus was claiming equality with God by claiming that he was the Son of God.

So, when we say that Jesus is God, we are saying that he is divine by nature. He is, after all, the second person of the Trinity. But when we say that Jesus is the Son of God, we are saying that he is also God since that is what the phrase means.

No, Jesus was not created as an equal being to God. After all, Jesus came into existence 2000 years ago. Let me explain. 2000 years ago, the second person of the Trinity, the Word, became flesh (John 1:1,14) and was born through the Virgin Mary. His name is Jesus. That event is called the incarnation. Furthermore, Jesus has two natures, God and man. We call this the hypostatic union. The union of those two natures did not occur until 2000 years ago. However, the divine nature of Jesus is eternal. But the human nature of Jesus had a beginning.  Furthermore, the attributes of both natures are ascribed to the single person. This is called the communicatio idiomatum.  So, the one person of Jesus would say, “I am thirsty,” (John 19:28) and “I will be with you always even to the end of the earth,” (Matt. 28:20). This is because He claimed the attributes of both humanity and divinity.

Now we can better answer the question, “Was Jesus created as an equal to God?” The answer is no. Jesus is not equal to God in the sense that He was created in order to be equal. After all, no created thing can be equal to the uncreated God. But, the nature of Jesus that is divine is, by nature, equal to God, and it that nature is not created. Now, the key is the word “created.” So, no He was not created to be equal because He already was equal in His divine nature – not in his human nature.

- John 5:18, “or this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.”

- John 5:23, “so that all will honor the Son even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.”

- John 10:30, “I and the Father are one.”

The Trinity

The Trinity is one eternal being who exists as three simultaneous, coeternal, distinct persons: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. When we say “persons” in the context of the Trinity, we mean the characteristics of having a will, being self-aware, aware of others, can love, hate, think, reason, etc. The Trinity is three of these, not three beings, not three Gods. After all, God is a triune being. If any of the three persons were removed, God would not be God. Think of a cube. It has height, width, and depth. If any one of those three aspects were removed, the cube could not exist. For more on this, please see the Trinity Chart.

So, Jesus is the union between the second person of the Trinity, the Word (John 1:1, 14), and human nature. This new union is not eternal, but the divine nature within it is eternal. So, Jesus was not created as an equal to God.