Problem: Paul said, “what will they do who are baptized for the dead?” This seems to imply that if a person gets baptized on the account of a dead person, then the deceased will be saved. But, this is in conflict with the clear teaching of Scripture that anyone old enough must believe for himself or herself (John 3:16;Rom. 10:9–13; cf.Ezek. 18:20) to be saved.

Solution: This is an obscure and isolated passage. It is unwise to base any doctrine on such a passage. Rather, one should always use the clear passages of Scripture to interpret the unclear ones. The Bible is emphatic that baptism does not save

Expanded from [Acts 2:38](Acts_2.38.php:

Acts 2:38—Did Peter declare that baptism was necessary for salvation?

Problem: Peter seems to be saying that those who responded had to repent and be baptized before they could receive the Holy Spirit. But this is contrary to the teaching of Paul that baptism is not part of the Gospel (1 Cor. 1:17) and that we are saved by faith alone (Rom. 4:4; Eph. 2:8–9).

Solution: This is resolved when we consider the possible meaning of being baptized “for” the remission of sins in the light of its usage, the whole context, and the rest of Scripture. Consider the following:

First, the word “for” (eis) can mean “with a view to” or even “because of.” In this case, water baptism would be because they had been saved, not in order to be saved.

Second, people are saved by receiving God’s word, and Peter’s audience “gladly received his word” before they were baptized (Acts 2:41).

Third, verse 44 speaks of “all who believed” as constituting the early church, not all who were baptized.

Fourth, later, those who believed Peter’s message clearly received the Holy Spirit before they were baptized. Peter said, “Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” (Acts 10:47)

Fifth, Paul separates baptism from the Gospel, saying, “Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the Gospel” (1 Cor. 1:17). But it is the Gospel which saves us (Rom. 1:16). Therefore, baptism is not part of what saves us.

Sixth, Jesus referred to baptism as a work of righteousness (Matt. 3:15). But the Bible declares clearly it is “not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us” (Titus 3:5).

Seventh, not once in the entire Gospel of John, written explicitly so that people could believe and be saved (John 20:31), does it give baptism as part of the condition of salvation. It simply says over and over that people should “believe” and be saved (cf. John 3:16, 18, 36).

In view of all these factors it seems best to understand Peter’s statement like this: “Repent and be baptized with a view to the forgiveness of sins.” That this view looked backward (to their sins being forgiven after they were saved) is made clear by the context and the rest of Scripture. Believing (or repenting) and being baptized are placed together, since baptism should follow belief. But nowhere does it say, “He who is not baptized will be condemned” (cf. Mark 16:16). Yet Jesus said emphatically that “he who does not believe is condemned already” (John 3:18). So neither Peter nor the rest of Scripture makes baptism a condition of salvation.

). We are saved by grace through faith, not by works (Eph. 2:8–9; Titus 3:5–7; Rom. 4:5). Further, we cannot do anything that would obtain salvation for another person. Each person must personally believe (John 1:12). Everyone must make his own free choice (Matt. 23:37; 2 Peter 3:9).

Scholars differ as to what Paul means in this passage. The following interpretations are possibilities.

Some believe Paul is referring to a cultic practice among the Corinthians who had many other false beliefs (cf. 1 Cor. 5; 12). In effect, Paul would be saying, “If you don’t believe in the Resurrection, then why engage in the practice of baptizing people for the dead. You are inconsistent with your own (false) beliefs.” They think that the practice was so obviously wrong that Paul does not need to condemn it explicitly. They point to the fact that Paul says “they” (others) not “we” baptize the dead (v. 29).

Others suggest that Paul is simply referring to the fact that baptism of new converts is replenishing the depleted ranks of believers who have died and gone on to be with the Lord. If so, then his sense here would be, “Why do you continue to fill the church with baptized converts, who replace those who have died, if you do not really believe there is any hope for them beyond the grave?”

Some suggest that Paul is referring to the fact that baptism symbolizes the believer’s death with Christ (Rom. 6:3–5). The Greek word “for” (eis) can mean “with a view to.” In this sense, he would be saying, “Why are you baptized with a view to your death and resurrection with Christ, if you do not believe in the Resurrection?”

Still others, point out that the preposition “for” in Greek (huper) can mean “for the sake of.” In this case, baptism would be for the sake of those who are dead. They point to the fact that Paul says “If the dead do not rise at all; Why then are they baptized for the dead?” (v. 29) Since it was common in the NT period to be baptized as one accepted the Gospel, this was a sign of one’s faith in Christ. Thus Paul would be saying, “Why be baptized if there is no resurrection?” For Paul later says that if there is no resurrection, then “let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die” (v. 32). Whatever the correct interpretation, there is no reason to believe Paul is here contradicting his clear teaching elsewhere or the rest of Scripture which insists that every person must freely choose or reject God’s gift of salvation.

Problem: Over and over again the Scriptures insist that one should simply believe in God (cf. John 3:16; Acts 16:31). Hebrews declares that “without faith it is impossible to please God” (Heb. 11:6). Paul contended that, “the world through wisdom did not know God” (1 Cor. 1:21). Yet Peter here instructs believers to “defend” and give a “reason” for their faith. Aren’t faith and reason opposed?

Solution: Faith and reason are not mutually exclusive. A person should not believe in something without first inquiring whether it is a worthy object of belief. For example, few people would undergo a serious medical operation by a totally unknown person whom they had no reason to believe was anything but a quack. Likewise, God does not call on us to exercise blind faith.

Since God is a God of reason (Isa. 1:18), and since He has made us rational creatures in His image (Gen. 1:27; Col. 3:10), He wants us to look before we leap. No rational person should step into an elevator without first looking to see if there is a floor. Likewise, God wants us to take a step of faith in the light of the evidence, but not a leap of faith into the dark.

The Bible is filled with exhortations to use our reason. Jesus commanded, “You shall love the Lord ... with all your mind” (Matt. 22:37, emphasis added in all quotes here). Paul added, “whatsoever things are true ... think on these things” (Phil. 4:8, kjv). Paul also “reasoned” with the Jews (Acts 17:17) and with the philosophers on Mars Hill (v. 22ff) winning many to Christ (v. 34). Bishops were instructed to be able “to refute those who contradict” (Titus 1:9, nasb). Paul declares that he was “appointed for the defense of the gospel” (Phil. 1:17). Jude urged us to “contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints” (Jude 3). And Peter commanded, “be ready to give a defense to everyone who asks you a reason for the hope that is in you” (1 Peter 3:15).

There are two kinds of belief. Understanding the relation between them is a key to discerning the relation between faith and reason.

The devil believes that God exists, but He does not believe in God. Belief that is a matter of the mind knowing something based on the evidence human reason can see. Belief in God (or Christ), however, is a choice of the human will under the persuasion of the Holy Spirit. So belief that will never save anyone (cf. James 2:14–20)—only belief in Christ can do that. However, no rational person should ever believe in something, unless he first has evidence to believe that it is true. No sensible traveler gets into an airplane with a broken off wing. So, reason is valid as a basis for belief that, but is wrong to demand as a basis for belief in (cf. John 20:27–29).

Psalm 11:5
—How can this verse say God hates some people when
John 3:16
says God loves everyone?
(See discussion under
Ps. 5:5
.)

Psalm 5:5
—How can this verse say God hates the wicked when
John 3:16
says that God loves the world?
Problem:
Psalm 5:5
states, “You [God] hate all workers of iniquity.” However,
John 3:16
says God loves the world. Don’t these verses contradict each other?
Solution:
There is no contradiction in these statements. The difficulty arises when we wrongly assume that God hates in the same way men hate. Hatred in human beings is generally thought of in terms of strong emotional distaste or dislike for someone or something. However, in God, hate is a judicial act on the part of the righteous Judge who separates the sinner from Himself. This is not contradictory to God’s love, for in His love for sinners, God has made it possible for sin to be forgiven so that all can be reconciled to God. Ultimately, the sinner will reap the consequences of rejecting God in eternal separation from God, or the harvest of God’s love by being with Him for all eternity. But, God is “not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance” (
2 Peter 3:9
). God’s justice demands that sin be punished. God’s love carried that punishment for every man in the person of His Son (
2 Cor. 5:21
).

If Jesus is God’s “only begotten Son,” then how can angels and Christians also be God’s sons?

It is clear from verses such as the following that one title for Jesus is “Son of God.”

> Matthew 8:29
And suddenly they cried out, saying, “What have we to do with You, Jesus, You Son of God? Have You come here to torment us before the time?”

> Matthew 14:33
Then those who were in the boat came and worshiped Him, saying, “Truly You are the Son of God.”

> Matthew 26:62–64
And the high priest arose and said to Him, “Do You answer nothing? What is it these men testify against You?” But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest answered and said to Him, “I put You under oath by the living God: Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God!” Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

> Mark 1:1
The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God.

Throughout Scripture, others are also called “son(s) of God.”

• Adam (Luke 3:38)
• Angels (Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7)1
• Believers (Matthew 5:9; Romans 8:14, 19; Galatians 3:26)

“A son of God” or “sons of God” are monikers for those who follow after God. But the phrase “the Son of God” is used only for Jesus Christ. He is called the “only begotten Son” (John 1:14, 3:16, 3:18; 1 John 4:9) and “His [God’s] own Son” (Romans 8:3). Jesus is referred to as “the Son” when God is referred to as “the Father” (John 3:35–¬36; 5:19–27; 6:40; 17:1; 2 John 1:9; Matthew 28:19). In fact, Jesus is the Son, the second person of the Godhead, which cannot be said of any human or angel.

When understood from the whole context of Scripture, there is really no contradiction. Jesus is called “the only begotten” as the unique Son of God in a very real sense that no angelic being or member of humanity can share.

It is clear from verses such as the following that one title for Jesus is “Son of God.”

> Matthew 8:29And suddenly they cried out, saying, “What have we to do with You, Jesus, You Son of God? Have You come here to torment us before the time?”

> Matthew 14:33Then those who were in the boat came and worshiped Him, saying, “Truly You are the Son of God.”

> Matthew 26:62–64And the high priest arose and said to Him, “Do You answer nothing? What is it these men testify against You?” But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest answered and said to Him, “I put You under oath by the living God: Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God!” Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

> Mark 1:1The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God.

Throughout Scripture, others are also called “son(s) of God.”

- Adam (Luke 3:38)

- Angels (Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7)1

- Believers (Matthew 5:9; Romans 8:14, 19; Galatians 3:26)

“A son of God” or “sons of God” are monikers for those who follow after God. But the phrase “the Son of God” is used only for Jesus Christ. He is called the “only begotten Son” (John 1:14, 3:16, 3:18; 1 John 4:9) and “His [God’s] own Son” (Romans 8:3). Jesus is referred to as “the Son” when God is referred to as “the Father” (John 3:35–¬36; 5:19–27; 6:40; 17:1; 2 John 1:9; Matthew 28:19). In fact, Jesus is the Son, the second person of the Godhead, which cannot be said of any human or angel.

When understood from the whole context of Scripture, there is really no contradiction. Jesus is called “the only begotten” as the unique Son of God in a very real sense that no angelic being or member of humanity can share.