Yes, Jesus claimed to be God. He claimed to be "I AM," which is God’s name (Exodus 3:14 with John 8:58). For us to understand his claim in its cultural and biblical context, we need to read something in the Old Testament and then in the New Testament. Before God freed the people of Israel from bondage in Egypt, he appeared to Moses in a burning bush. Let’s take a look.

> "Therefore, come now, and I will send you to Pharaoh, so that you may bring My people, the sons of Israel, out of Egypt. 11 But Moses said to God, "Who am I, that I should go to Pharaoh, and that I should bring the sons of Israel out of Egypt?" 12 And He said, "Certainly I will be with you, and this shall be the sign to you that it is I who have sent you: when you have brought the people out of Egypt, you shall worship God at this mountain." 13 Then Moses said to God, "Behold, I am going to the sons of Israel, and I will say to them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you.’ Now they may say to me, ‘What is His name?’ What shall I say to them?" 14 God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’" 15 God, furthermore, said to Moses, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘The LORD, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is My name forever, and this is My memorial-name to all generations," (Exodus 3:10-15).

We can see that God said his name is "I AM WHO I AM." He told Moses to say to the sons of Israel that "I AM has sent me to you." So, God’s name is "I AM." Let’s take a look at the Hebrew.

Exodus 3:14

> God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’ "

As you can see, God says he is the "I AM." Now, let’s take a look at the Greek version of that text.

Around 250 before Christ was born, the Jews translated the Hebrew Old Testament into the Greek. This translation is called the Septuagint, which is also known by the letters LXX. LXX means 70 and it is said that it took 70 Jewish translators to finish the work. When we examine the Septuagint at Exodus 3:14 we find the following…

> Exodus 3:14 in the LXX, "And God said to Moses, I AM [ἐγὼ εἰμί, ego eimi] the I AM [ἐγὼ εἰμί, ego eimi] and He said, "Thus you will say to the sons of Israel, the I AM [ἐγὼ εἰμί, ego eimi] has sent me to you."

So we have the Greek version being ἐγὼ εἰμί, ego eimi, where God gives his name. In the LXX it further says he is ὁ ὤν, ho own. Ego eimi is literally "I am," and ho own is "the being one." So God is saying that he is the "I AM," "The Being One." Now, let’s take a look at something Jesus said.

John 8:58

> "Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." 59 Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple," (John 8:58-59).

The Jews wanted to kill him for what he said. Why? Notice that he said, "Before Abraham was born, I am." That is incredibly significant. He is claiming existence before Abraham, and he does not say, "Before Abraham was, I was." He uses the present tense, "I am."

So, did Jesus claim to be God? Yes, he did. He used the same phrase that God said about himself in the Old Testament referring to his identity. Notice that ἐγὼ εἰμί, ego eimi, in John 8:58 is the same as the Greek found in the LXX of Exodus 3:14. The Jews knew what Jesus was claiming.

> “I and the Father are one.” 31 The Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God,” (John 10:30-33)

What was it that Jesus had said or done that caused the Jews to say that He was claiming to be God? Was it “I and the Father are one”? If so, why would that cause the Jews to want to kill Jesus? Perhaps it was something else. Maybe it was something Jesus said elsewhere that made them so angry.

There are only two places in John where the Jews wanted to kill Jesus with stones. Both of these occur after Jesus spoke and made a claim about Himself. The first was in John 8:58-59, and the second was in John 10:30-33. Here is the context of both verses:

There is absolutely no reference to stones or stoning between John 8:59 and John 10:31; but in those two verses, the Jews responded to Jesus’ words by wanting to kill Him. What was it that Jesus said in both cases that brought such a violent reaction? Here they are again . . .

The first time the Jews wanted to kill Jesus was when He said, “Before Abraham was, I am.” The second time wasn’t until John 10:31 when they again wanted to kill Him after Jesus said, “I and the Father are one.” Let’s look at these statements of Jesus.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses believe that John 8:58 should be translated as ” . . . before Abraham was, I have been,” not “I am.” But what is it about saying, “I have been” that would motivate the Jews to want to kill Jesus? Was Jesus simply stating that He pre-existed? If so, they would have thought Him greatly deceived and not worthy of being killed. Do we see any prior account of anyone in the Bible being killed for claiming to pre-exist? No. It isn’t blasphemy to state that you have pre-existed. It is, however, blasphemy to claim to be God; after all, that is what the Jews accused Jesus of claiming for Himself in John 10:31 when they again picked up stones to kill Him. What was it that Jesus said that motivated them in John 10:31 and in John 8:59 to want to kill Jesus?

From what I have seen, the greater number of Bibles translate John 8:58 as, “Before Abraham was, I am.” The words “I am” are “ego eimi” in the Greek; and the construction is in the present tense. “I have been” is in the perfect tense in English, but it is the Greek of John 8:58 that is in the present tense and not the perfect tense (I have been). Remember, the Jews weren’t mad at Jesus for speaking English (I have been) but for speaking Greek (I am). Therefore, what is it about the statement “Before Abraham was, I am” that would cause such anger and warrant Him being stoned to death?

Some say that in John 8, Jesus had said and done so many things that by the time Jesus said, “I am” in verse 58, the Jews simply snapped and tried to kill Him. But, that doesn’t hold with the Jews’ statement in John 10:33 where they tell Jesus the reason; it was for claiming to be God. So, again, what is it about Jesus saying, “Before Abraham was, I am” (or, “I have been”) that was so volatile and worthy of death according to the Jews?

The most natural explanation I see is that Jesus was referring back to when Moses was at the burning bush and asked God what His name was. God said, “I am that I am. Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, I am has sent me to you.” (Exodus 3:14). If we were to consider this as an explanation, then it makes sense why the Jews wanted to kill Jesus since his statement “Before Abraham was, I am” would logically cause the Pharisees to think Jesus was claiming to be God–which is exactly what they stated later as the reason for them wanting to kill Him.

There are, however, those who say that Jesus could not have been referring to Exodus 3:14, or that there is no reason to refer Christ’s statement to Exodus 3:14. But, if that is so, then what other explanation is there for the Jews’ desire to kill Jesus? What else would generate such a violent reaction from the Jews? Is there any other explanation that is suitable? Remember, the Jews gave their own reason for their anger. They said to Jesus, ” . . . You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.” (John 10:33).

Therefore, we need to ask the Jehovah’s Witness in what verse is it that Jesus was claiming to be God? Or, in what verse was it that could be construed and misinterpreted by the Jews to think that Jesus was claiming to be God?

Finally, notice that the Jews absolutely denied that Jesus was God in flesh. Interestingly, so do the Jehovah’s Witnesses. So, the Pharisees and the Jehovah’s Witnesses are in agreement about who Jesus is not.

John 10:30 is an interesting statement by Jesus. He said, “I and the Father are one.” What did Jesus mean? Was He saying that He and the Father were one in purpose? If so, wouldn’t the Jews claim the same thing as they sought to honor and serve God? Or perhaps, Jesus was saying they were of the same mind. If so, why didn’t Jesus say so? Could it be that Jesus was saying that He and the Father were the same person? But this wouldn’t make sense since Jesus said, “the Father and I”–designating that they are not the same person. Finally, could it be that Jesus was claiming to be of the same essence of the Father; that is, He was claiming to be divine? If so, then this would make sense since the Pharisees certainly claimed that Jesus was claiming to be God.

The Jehovah’s Witness Bible called the New World Translation translates John 10:33 not as “You being a man make yourself out to be God,” but as, “even because you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” Notice the NWT says “a god,” not “God.” This is typical of the Watchtower Organization which seeks to obliterate any mention of Jesus’ deity by altering the biblical text.

As you can see, out of 22 Bible versions, not one has “a god” translated as the Watchtower Organization does. Why? Because the Watchtower is biased against the deity of Christ and will take liberties to alter the English translation so as to suit its own theological needs.

On the contrary, I am doing no such thing. First of all, I do not agree with the Jews that Jesus is not God. It is the Jehovah’s Witnesses who agree with the Jews on this. Remember, the theology of the Jews is that Jesus is not God. Since I believe Jesus is God, I am not deriving my theology from them. Second, whether or not the Jews are correctly or incorrectly understanding Jesus isn’t the issue. The issue is what was it that Jesus said that caused them to say He was claiming to be God that so upset the Jews? If a Jehovah’s Witness cannot answer the question, then he doesn’t understand what is going on. It is simple. If he understood, then he could give an answer. If he can’t answer, then how can he understand the rest of the Bible since the Bible is about Jesus (John 5:39); and this issue is dealing with Jesus’ teachings about Himself? Third, the objection is a genetic fallacy; that is, it is saying that because the Pharisees said it, it can’t be true. This is like saying that because an atheist says something about Jesus, it can’t be true. Well, yes it can be true. Even atheists can understand what Jesus says and still not believe Him.

Jesus said in John 8:58, “Before Abraham was, I am.” This is a very important verse to Christians because it is one of the places we use to show that Jesus is God. We maintain that Jesus attributed the divine name of God (“I AM” from Exodus 3:14), to Himself, but this verse alone may not be sufficient to prove His deity. There is a combination of other verses that contribute to the doctrine. Nevertheless, many non-Christian groups deny that Jesus is God. Therefore, when they come to this verse, it must be dealt with. The reason is simple. If Jesus did say, “I am,” it would give strong evidence that Jesus was claiming to be God.

This paper will not attempt to analyze the Greek translation principles that have lead various Bibles to render John 8:58 as “I have been” or “I was in existence,” etc. Suffice it to say that the best-recognized translations which have sought literal renderings of the text have translated the verse as “I am”: NASB, NIV, KJV, RSV, etc.

The Jehovah’s Witness Watchtower organization claims that the best translation of John 8:58 is “Before Abraham was, I have been.” Notice that they do not have it say, “I am.”  Is it legitimate for the Watchtower organization to insist that John 8:58 is best translated as “I have been”? Let’s take a look.

Ego Eimi means “I am”

In Greek, the words recorded in John 8:58 are “‘prin abraam genesthai ego eimi.” Literally, this is “Before Abraham was existing, I am.” “Ego eimi” is literally, “I am.” This is the present tense. To say “I have been” is to use the perfect tense.  In Greek, he would have been “aemane,” but Jesus didn’t use it here.  He used the present tense “ego eimi” which is “I am.”

There are places, however, in the New Testament where the Greek present tense of ‘ego eimi‘ “I am” can be translated into the English perfect tense “I have been.” An example of this is John 14:9 where Jesus says, “Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me . . . “ In this verse, “Have I been” is originally the Greek present tense ‘ego eimi‘; but here, Jesus was answering the statement in verse 8, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.” Since in English it is awkward to say, “I am with you so long, and you still don’t know me . . . ,?” it is then rendered as, “Have I been with you so long, and you have not come to know me . . . ?” The translation of the Greek present into the English perfect tense is perfectly justifiable here because it doesn’t make sense in English, but is it the case with John 8:58? Must it be translated as “I have been”? No. There is no linguistic requirement to translate it as “I have been” particularly when you notice that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after he said, “ego eimi.”

Two views

Some say that the reason the Jews wanted to kill Jesus after He said, “Before Abraham was, I am” is that it was the last straw in a series of difficult and insulting things Jesus had been saying to the Jews in John chapter 8. Others say that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for saying “Before Abraham was, I am,” because “I am” is close to God saying “I am that I am” in Exodus 3:14. In other words, we can make the case that for Jesus to say, “Before Abraham was, I am” was equivalent to claiming God’s name for Himself. This is something the Jews would absolutely protest. Let’s look at the arguments:

The first argument states that Jesus had upset the Jews so much by what He had been saying that when he finally made his statement in verse 58, it was the last straw; the Jews snapped, and then they tried to kill him; but, they maintain, it wasn’t because Jesus was claiming the divine title. They had just had enough.

What had Jesus been saying? Following is a list of some key statements by Jesus in chapter 8.

1. “I am the light of the world” (8:12).
2. “I am He who bears witness of Myself, and the Father who sent Me bears witness of me” (8:18).
3. “You don’t know me or my Father” (8:19).
4. “You are from below, I am from above” (8:23).
5. “Unless you believe that I am, you shall die in your sins” (8:24).
6. “The things which I heard from Him [God the Father], these I speak to the world” (8:26).
7. “I speak these things as the Father taught me” (8:28).
8. “I always do the things that are pleasing to Him” (8:29).
9. “I speak the things which I have seen with My Father . . . “ (8:38).
10. ” . . . you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God, this Abraham did not do” (8:40).
11. ” . . . I proceeded forth and have come from God . . . “ (8:42).
12. “Truly, truly, I say to you, if anyone keeps My word he shall never see death” (8:51).
13. “It is my Father who glorifies Me . . . “ (8:54).
14. “Before Abraham was, I am” (8:58).

The preceding list has many profound statements. It is perfectly understandable that the Jews would be upset, but, it was Jesus’ statement in 8:58 that triggered their murderous attempt. Was it because Jesus said “Before Abraham was, I have been” or “Before Abraham was, I am”? Which would be the phrase most likely to be the last straw for the Jews? It is quite possible that either statement would be sufficient; but, of course, any claim by Jesus to the divine name would be a stronger motivation for the Jews to kill Him.

Also, notice statements  1, 5, 11, and 14.  These are clear declarations by Jesus where He exalts Himself to heavenly level.  The Jews could easily see this and would protest–particularly when Jesus said, “Before Abraham was, I am.” Since He did say, in Greek, “I am,” it is more likely that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy.  Consider Leviticus 24:16 which says, ‘Moreover, the one who blasphemes the name of the Lord shall surely be put to death; all the congregation shall certainly stone him” (NASB).

The connection with John 10:30-33

Capital punishment was only for serious sins: blasphemy, adultery, etc. From what I can see in the Bible, saying you had a preexistence isn’t blasphemy. However, claiming to be one with God is quite different.  In John 10:30-33, Jesus said, “I and the Father are one. The Jews took up stones again to stone him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning me?” 33“The Jews answered Him, ‘For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God” (NASB).

Between John 8:59 where the Jews picked up stones to kill Jesus and John 10:30-33 where they again picked up stones to kill him, there is no mention of stoning whatsoever. John 10:31 is referencing back to John 8:59 when it says “The Jews took up stones again to stone Him.” Note that they againwanted to kill Him, and this time they give the reason why. They said that Jesus was claiming to be God. Now, where would they get that idea? Could it have been where he said, “Before Abraham was, I am”? Could it be from where Jesus said, “I and the Father are one” (10:30)?  Since they wanted to kill Him both times, it would seem that Jesus had been making some very serious claims, or was it simply that the Pharisees misunderstood Jesus; and that Jesus never did claim to be God?

But, if Jesus was not claiming to be God in John 8:58 and 10:30, then what was it that He said that warranted such a violent response from the Jews in both cases? What phrase from Jesus did the Jews react to and what ‘misunderstanding’ did they have about what it was Jesus said that led them to claim that he was making Himself out to be God?

In my opinion, the best explanation for the Jews wanting to kill Jesus is that Jesus was claiming equality with God. They considered this blasphemy. These groups, like the religious leaders who opposed Jesus, deny who Jesus really is as well.

For further reading go to Who is Jesus according to the apostle John?

“Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to you, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been,” New World Translation.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses deny that Jesus is God.  So, when it comes to translating and interpreting Bible verses that show the deity of Jesus, the Watchtower Bible, and Tract Society will go to great lengths to support their false presupposition.  Sometimes they will even translate verses in a way that is consistent with their belief system.  In the Jehovah’s Witness Bible, known as the New World Translation (NWT),1WE = WorldWide English Bible; YLT = Young’s Literal Translation; KJ21 = 21st Century King James Versiontranslation

John 8:58 is a verse that they have translated in a manner deliberately consistent with their theology.  Following is the verse in context from the NASB:

In John 8:56-59 says, “‘Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.’ 57The Jews, therefore, said to Him, ‘You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?’   58Jesus said to them, ‘Truly truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.’ 59Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple.”   (All Bible quotes are from the NASB)

The issue at hand is the phrase “I am” in verse 58.  The Jehovah’s Witnesses have “translated” the Greek present tense (“I am”) into the English perfect tense (“I have been”) which is more consistent with their theological position that Jesus is not God in flesh.  In Greek, the words are “ego eimi.” Literally, this is “I am.”  “Ego eimi” is the present active indicative first person singular (I am) and not the perfect active indicative first person singular (I have been).  It would seem that the natural and correct translation into English is “I am,” but the NWT does not translate this into the present tense. Why? I am firmly convinced it is because translating John 8:58 as “I am” would be too close to God identifying Himself as the “I am” in Exodus 3:14.  Therefore, Watchtower Bible and Tract Society has opted for a different rendering.

“And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM”; and He said, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.'” (Exodus 3:14).

But the issue is not settled so easily.  Does the Bible ever legitimately translate the present tense ‘ego eimi’ into the English perfect tense “I have been”?  Yes, it does.  In John 14:8-9 it says, “Philip said to Him, ‘Lord show us the Father, and it is enough for us.’  9Jesus said to him, ‘Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip?   He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, ‘Show us the Father?'”  Where Jesus says, “I have been” is in the Greek present tense, ‘ego eimi’.  Literally, again, this is “I am.”  Here we have an example of the Greek present tense being translated into the English perfect tense.  This is the very same thing the Watchtower organization claims is legitimate in John 8:58.  Why is this translated into “I have been?”  Quite simply because if we did not do this, then the English would say, “I am with you so long . . . ”  That is awkward in the English, so translators translate it as “Have I been so long with you . . . ”  It is legitimate to do this in some instances where it is warranted in order to make the English more readable and clear.  But is it necessary to do this in John 8:58?  I don’t believe so unless your underlying presupposition is that Jesus is not God in flesh.

Additionally, to make the issue even more complicated, there are some English Bible translations that render John 8:58 other than “I AM.”  For example, the Living Bible (1973, a paraphrase) says, “The absolute truth is that I was in existence before Abraham was ever born.”  The New Living Translations says, “I existed.” The Bible in Worldwide English translates it as “I already was.”  1960, 1973 NASB had a marginal rendering of “I have been.”  Because of this, the Jehovah’s Witness will claim the NWT is, therefore, legitimate since other Bibles have translations other than “I AM” in John 8:58.  But from what I have seen of these other translations, they are intended to be looser renderings of the Greek and therefore take more liberties in translation.  The NASB, for example, is intended to be as literal as possible as does the KJV which both translate the verse as “I AM.”  The 1973 NASB marginal quote above is just that–marginal and is not what they rendered into the English text.  The preferred translation is “I am.” Take Young’s Literal Translation as another example.  In John 8:58 it states, “. . . Before Abraham’s coming–I am.”  In fact, other translations render it as:

1. “Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was born, I am,” (ASV).
2. “Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am,” (KJV).
3. “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am,” (NASB).
4. “I tell you the truth, Jesus answered, ‘before Abraham was born, I am!” (NIV).
5. “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM,” (NKJV).
6. “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am,” (RSV).
7. “Truly, truly, before Abraham was, I am,” (NLT).
8. “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am,” (RSV)
9. “Verily, verily I say unto you, before Abraham was, I am!” (KJ21).
10. “Verily, verily, I say to you, Before Abraham’s coming–I am,’ (YLT).
11. “Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am,” (Darby).
12. “Antes que Abraham fuese, yo soy,” (Spanish) – uses “yo soy” which is “I am.”
13. “En vï’ritï’, en vï’ritï’, je vous le dis, avant qu’Abraham fï’t, je suis,” (French) “je suis” which is “I am.”

Of course, the Jehovah’s Witnesses will cite translations that have renderings other than the plain “I am” for John 8:58 and in so doing claim legitimacy.  Unfortunately, since different translations do have different renderings, the debate will continue between the Jehovah’s Witnesses and Christian apologists until the Lord Jesus returns.

In the meantime, let’s turn to page 467 of the 1969 Greek Interlinear used by the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society:

The Watchtower’s own interlinear translates John 8:58 as “I am” even though in the NWT it renders it as “I have been.”  In this, they admit that the Greek is indeed, “I am,” the present tense.  They will not deny this.  What they assert is that it should be translated into English, “I have been.”  Should it or could it?  If it should, then Greek scholars would echo the NWT rendition in the great majority of instances; but they do not.  Essentially, the Watchtower organization is saying that all the translations that have “I am” as the rendering are wrong and that the “proper” translation is “I have been.” In a footnote at the bottom of page 467 regarding John 8:58 in the NWT is this comment:

“I have been = ego eimi after the a’orist infinitive clause prin’ Abraam genesthai and hence properly rendered in the perfect tense.  It is not the same as ho ohn’, meaning “The Being” or “The I Am” at Exodus 3:14, LXX”

The “LXX” is the Septuagint, a Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament.  The question is whether or not Jesus was quoting from the LXX or if He was simply translating Hebrew.  Again, Exodus 3:14 says, “And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM”; and He said, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, I AM has sent me to you.'”  The phrase “I AM WHO I AM” is rendered in the Greek LXX as “Ego eimi ho on.”  Literally, this is “I am the being one.”  Most Bibles translate Hebrew from Exodus 3:14 as “I am”–the present tense as did the Hebrew translators of the LXX.  The LXX also has it in the present tense which is what the Greek syntax states.  Jesus uses the present tense in John 8:58.

In spite of some of the translations regarding John 8:58, I do not believe the NWT’s version of John 8:58 is warranted for three reasons:  First, it purports to “transmit his God] thoughts and declarations as accurately as possible.”[2New World Translation, 1961, p. 5.

I do not believe this is the case at all.  Rather, I see the Watchtower’s bias against Jesus’ divinity overtaking this verse and altering it as it has done in other verses such as Heb. 1:8 and Col. 1:15-17.  Second, the most literal translations such as the NASB, the NIV, and the KJV do not render this verse as “I have been” but as “I AM.”  And, third, the context of the verse does not support the JW position.

It isn’t the English but the Greek that upset the Pharisees

“‘Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.’ 57The Jews, therefore, said to Him, ‘You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?’   58Jesus said to them, ‘Truly truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.’ 59Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple.”

The Pharisees didn’t speak English.  They spoke Hebrew and Greek.  In the Greek text, Jesus uses the present tense.  It was this Greek present tense (I am) that upset the Pharisees so much and not the perfect tense (I have been).

If Jesus were really saying to the Jews, “I have been,” then why would the Pharisees want to kill him (v. 59)?  Since blasphemy or calling yourself God was punishable by death, isn’t this a confirmation that Jesus was saying “I am,” and that the Jews understood what he was saying?  Absolutely!  That is why the best translation is simply “I am.”3I should note that most probably Jesus spoke to the Pharisees in Aramaic, a Hebrew Dialect.  It is possible He spoke to them in Greek.  But, since all we have is the NT Greek and no Aramaic writings of the NT, we must work from what the Greek says.

I also need to mention that in Mark 14:62, where Jesus answered the High Priest who said, “Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? 62And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. 63Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses? 64Ye have heard the blasphemy….” Jesus responded with “I am” which provoked the authorities and prompted them to seek death.  This is particularly revealing when we compare John 10:34 where the Pharisees want to kill Jesus because they said He was making Himself equal to God.  The phrase, “I AM” in these contexts would surely imply that.

Undoubtedly, Jesus knew the difference in the Greek between “I am” and “I have been.”  Jesus did not use the form “I have been” in the Greek but used the form “I am.”  It is Greek and not the English that the Pharisees were upset about.

But the Pharisees were so upset

At this point, many of the Jehovah’s Witnesses assert that by the time Jesus said, “Before Abraham was I have been,” (NWT) they had already been thoroughly agitated by Jesus and basically snapped and tried to kill Him at this final comment.  Furthermore, the Jehovah’s Witnesses deny that Jesus was claiming the divine title of Exodus 3:14 where God said to Moses, “I am that I am.”  But which do you think would have upset the Pharisees more, saying “Before Abraham was, I am” or “Before Abraham was, I have been”?  Obviously, the former would be more upsetting, and that is exactly the phrase that Jesus used.

If Jesus wanted to avoid any confusion with the Pharisees, why didn’t He use one of the past tenses? Certainly, he must have known that saying “Before Abraham was, I am” to the Pharisees would cause some problems.  And it did.   The aorist (I was), the perfect (I have been), and the pluperfect (I had been) all deal with the past; yet Jesus chose to deliberately use the present tense “I am.”  He used a past tense verb when describing Abraham (“before Abraham was . . . “) but a present tense verb when describing Himself (“I am”). He deliberately brought attention to the words, “I am.” The Pharisees understood this and was indeed the last straw for them.

Conclusion

The Jehovah’s Witnesses have spent a great deal of time developing and crafting linguistic arguments to favor their translation of John 8:58. Wading through their arguments dealing with Greek tenses, verb forms, and grammar rules is beyond the scope of this paper. However, it is sufficient to mention that the Jehovah’s Witnesses have a theological bias against the deity of Christ. Their translation of John 8:58 and their attempts to justify this translation are directly related to their presuppositions against Christ and his deity.

The Watchtower Bible and Tract Society teaches its members to deny the deity of Christ.  From this base, any and all affirmations to Jesus’ deity will be undermined in whatever way possible.  John 8:58 is just another example of this bias.

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References
1↑ WE = WorldWide English Bible; YLT = Young’s Literal Translation; KJ21 = 21st Century King James Versiontranslation
2↑ New World Translation, 1961, p. 5.
3↑ I should note that most probably Jesus spoke to the Pharisees in Aramaic, a Hebrew Dialect.  It is possible He spoke to them in Greek.  But, since all we have is the NT Greek and no Aramaic writings of the NT, we must work from what the Greek says.